“Jesus took bread, blessed and broke it, and gave it to the disciples and said, ‘Take, eat; this is my body.’ ” (Matthew 26:26, NKJV)
“And He took bread, gave thanks and broke it, and gave it to them, saying, ‘This is my body which is given for you; do this in remembrance of me.’ ” (Luke 22:19, NKJV)
When Jesus took the bread and said, “This is my body”- was the body of the Lord in two different places, or was it an extension of himself since he was holding himself?
If you were one of the disciples, would you have understood that Christ was holding the substance of his body, while the accidens gave the appearance of bread?
When Jesus gave the disciples the bread to eat, would they have understood it was his body, even though it tasted exactly like bread? Would it be more probable to think that the disciples probably did not take Jesus’ words literally?
Does Christ offer himself in the Lord’s Supper before he is offered on the cross?
In Luke 22 Jesus says, “This cup is the new covenant in my blood which is poured out for you.” At that moment, is the “cup” also the body/blood of Christ, or is it a figure of symbolic language?
If no, on what basis does one decide that the word “cup” is a metaphor or a symbol, while the wine literally becomes blood? In other words, what interpretive principle decides which is literal and which figurative?
Mark 14:23-24 states that Jesus said the cup was His blood, and they all drank from it. Did Jesus also drink what was actually his own blood? This verse indicates the blood is shed for many- why then would Jesus drink his own blood? Matthew 26:28 “This is my blood of the covenant, which is shed for many for the remission of sins.” Why would Jesus drink this cup, since he was sinless?
After giving the cup, in Matthew 26:29 Jesus calls the contents of the cup “this fruit of the vine”. Calvin notes, this “plainly show[s] that what he delivered to the disciples to drink was wine; so that in every way the ignorance of the Papists is fully exposed. Well- is it?